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The theoretical probability of winning a prize at a single try on playing the marble game is 2/6.
Ohh right. Its because since there are 6 possibilities to win a prize at a single try, I did 1/3 times 1/2 which i got 1/6. After that my final step was to add 1/6 plus 1/6 which got me 2/6.
I dont get this. Why are the results in the table and the theotretical probability i found compare. Is it maybe because they are close?
Yes,The difference is that the experimental probability is 0.3 and the theoretical probability is 0.33. They are different numbers. I got 0.33 for the expiremental probability because at first i had 9/30 but i reduced it to a decimal.
I think that because the bag game has 3/9 chance of winning and the spinner game is 4/9 so it is basically more possibility of winning than the bag game.
In the second game i made, the player has a better chance of winning with the spinner game. which is my second one.
Ohhhhh that makes more sense.
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